In the mind of child molesters they are doing what is natural to them and its how they are born. How does this differ from a gay man except besides the obviousness that the partner is willing and of age. Real question I am curious!

If both the gay man and child molesters are supposedly born that way and it's natural wouldn't both be almost one in the same. Besides that I personally believe it is all a learned trait just like how gay men learn to speak with a lisp to identify other gay men. Please respond with scientic answers as I am Extreamly curious and again I'm sorry that this will offend most but I really want to know answers. Again I realise they are not th same buy mentally I am suggesting they have the same parameters in theaince they can't help it so to speak.just one is now more viewed by society as ok bc the other partner is cool with it.